Sunday, March 21, 2021

Recent Questions - English Language & Usage Stack Exchange

Recent Questions - English Language & Usage Stack Exchange

Translation of old english letter (1874) with hard cursive [closed]

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 09:34 AM PDT

is someone able to translate this letter from 1874 (I am not native english speaker furthermore) it's old English and cursive doesn't help ..

It's a letter of a preface writer in relation with a book of Sir Aston Cokain (Cockayne)

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The property of being in a set

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 09:04 AM PDT

What's the noun that means "is a member of the set".

I think there is a more specific word than "membership", in math/compsci contexts.

set.includes(item) is an O(1) check for _____

Study smth + a book

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 09:31 AM PDT

If I have a book which I use for studying English, can I say "I'm studying English from this book."?

Which preposition or phrase will suit hear?

Some native speakers say it sounds weird. They say "I'm using this book to study English." is much better. But it sounds unusual to my ear.

"Today" - "This day" - or something else entirely?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 08:36 AM PDT

"It had been four years since that day. Today was the day of their scheduled return."

or

"It had been four years since that day. This day was the day of their scheduled return."

or is something else more accurate?

For clarification, this is for a book I'm writing. It's in past tense. The first sentence refers to an event four years before the current scene of the book. And the second sentence refers to the scene in the book.

…With the bad guy win every once in a while…: grammatical or not? If not, is there a context for poetic licence?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 07:01 AM PDT

In this famous song by Billy Preston the following words can be heard at point 45 s.

  • I've got a story that ain't got no moral, with the bad guy win every once in a while…

On the one hand, the listener is rather inclined to think that "win" is the verb rather than the noun; yet, "with" is no conjunction (and an s is missing), and so this can't be grammatical. On the other hand, if they decode "win" as the noun, the noun phrase "the bad guy win" does not appear idiomatic, or is it?
If none of these two possibilities is acceptable grammar, is there a case for poetic licence or do we have to conclude that the lyrics contain a flaw of language that has to be accepted? In that latter case, is there a term that describes this type of usage, which would not be justifiable on the ground of poetic licence, for example a term that would justify it on the ground of fitting the words to the music? Could it be artistic licence (which then would not be exactly the same thing as poetic licence)?

"The number of Xs" - why no article?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 07:17 AM PDT

Looking at Why not add 'the' before the last 'steps' word? as recently asked on ELL, I was struck by the realisation that it's very difficult to find contexts where we would include both articles in noun phrases of the general form the number of the [things, steps, whatever]. But there's no such restriction with other "attributes", such as the colour of the steps, the size of the steaks, the age of the mountains,...

1: Find the average length of words in this sentence (fine)
2: Find the average length of the words in this sentence (also fine)
3: Find the number of words in this sentence (fine)
4: Find the number of the words in this sentence (DOESN'T WORK)

Is there any identifiable reason why number should work like this? Are there any other "attribute" words (apart from number and near-synonymous quantity) that are similarly "averse" to being attached to a plural noun phrase prefaced by the definite article?

When Clause - Would or Will

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 06:26 AM PDT

I was wondering what is the correct way of referring to an event that will certainly happen in the future:

  1. When we do <action 1>, we would have to do <action 2>.
  2. When we do <action 1>, we will have to do <action 2>.

What is the general rule in such cases?

Thanks in advance!

Verb agreement with percentages

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 06:17 AM PDT

Recently I've come across this sentence in Keynote Advanced:

Over 50 per cent of our materials come / comes from local suppliers.

The answer provided in the teacher's book is comes. I've checked several grammar textbooks and all of them say that it should be come. For example, here is an excerpt from Advanced Grammar in Use by Martin Hewgings:

When the first noun in a complex subject is a percentage or a fraction the verb agrees with the nouns closest to the verb. E.g. About 50% of the houses need major repairs.

I'm inclined to think that comes in the answer key is a typo, but maybe I'm missing something. Could you please advise?

What is the difference between the purpose of period and comma?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 05:30 AM PDT

I know that they are different punctuation marks and have different rules of when to use them but apart from that what is the difference between the purpose of comma and period? why does a comma exist if we can just end sentences with a period instead of separating them with a comma?

Which one is correct please?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 05:30 AM PDT

I'm wondering about these two sentences, I want to know which one is correct please

  • Foreigners are welcome to apply
  • Foreigners are welcomed to apply

What does "a man of a woman" mean?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 07:09 AM PDT

I found this sentence in a book, in which the author (non-native) teaches translation.

Angela is a man of a woman

The author argues that this sentence means Angela is a woman, and she acts like a man. The author further explains that the strcture "a [noun A] of a [noun B]" means B which acts/appears like A.

I doubt the author's understanding. I have googled "a man of a woman", and the results show this noun phrase does not mean that.

Now I am confused, and I am wondering what does this phrase truly mean. In addition, does there exist the usage that "a [noun A] of a [noun B]" means "B which acts/appears like A"?

Cocktail of chemical compounds robustly promoting cell reprogramming protects liver against acute injury

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 05:19 AM PDT

I would like to edit this journal article title to make it sound better

Which one is the best option?

Cocktail of chemical compounds which robustly promotes cell reprogramming protects liver against acute injury

or

Cocktail of chemical compounds that robustly promotes cell reprogramming protects liver against acute injury

Also, do I use 'promote' or 'promotes'?

do you work before machine translation

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 05:18 AM PDT

What it means "do you work before machine translation?" Is it a expression? I don't get it.

How did words like rubbish, ribbon and cabbage get "BB"?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 04:22 AM PDT

Certain words that have double B in Modern English didn't have "BB" in the word they are derived from.

  • Rubbish: "c. 1400, robous, from Anglo-French rubouses" (Etymology Dictionary)
  • Ribbon: "early 14c., ribane, from Old French riban "a ribbon," variant of ruban (13c.)" (Etymology Dictionary)
  • Cabbage: "mid-15c., caboge, from Old North French caboche "head" ... , from Old French caboce "head," " (Etymology Dictionary)

They did not have a second B before but they do in Modern English.

In contrast,

  • Bubble: "early 14c., perhaps from Middle Dutch bobbel (n.) and/or Middle Low German bubbeln (v.)" (Etymology Dictionary)
  • Babble: "mid-14c., "to speak as an infant speaks," frequentative of blabben, of echoic origin (compare Old Norse blabbra, Danish blabbre "babble," German plappern "to babble")." (Etymology Dictionary)

Is the addition of a second B in Modern English (or Middle English) random? Why and how did some of those words acquire a second B?

Is it "The UK" or "UK"?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 04:21 AM PDT

Same thing for "the Middle East", is that correct? or "Middle East" is correct.

Why do Christians in American deep south say "whenever" when they mean "when"?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 04:13 AM PDT

As a midwestern American (Iowa), I want to understand the history, reason, and mechanics of why southern Americans say "whenever" when the word "when" would suffice.

For instance:

An Iowan (and the rest of the West and Midwest, probably) would say:

"When I was a child I loved candy."

But, someone from Alabama, Georgia, and North Carolina are more likely to say:

"Whenever I was a child I loved candy."

Where I grew up we were taught that "whenever" is used to describe an unknown when, either in the present or past. The other situation where whenever was appropriate is when discussing a "when" that occurred multiple times.

Ex 1: (past repeated)

"Whenever he decided he wanted to dress like a girl, he would put on his pink tutu and just dance the day away."

In this tense, whenever indicates that something was repeatedly done but specific dates and times aren't being offered. This is a generic, summary "when".

Ex 2: (future unknown non-repeat)

Jim: Hey, what time are you leaving today?

Bill: It depends.

Jim: Well, whenever you decide to go, can you pick us up some milk up from the store before you come back?

In my understanding, both of these two examples would be considered correct usage of "whenever".

Why do southern evangelical Christians in American churches say "how that" instead of how?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 04:46 AM PDT

Why do evangelical Christians in American churches say "how that" instead of how?

Ex. 1:

Let me tell you a story about Billy Beaumont and how that, for our sakes, he joined the war to fight the commies for our freedom.

Ex. 2:

Joey: Pa, why have our pecan trees lost all their leaves?

Pa: Well son, you know how that the woodpeckers will peck all kinds of holes in the trees?

Joey: Yep.

Pa: Well that kills the trees and that's why they ain't got leaves no more.

In my understanding, correct usage of "how that" would be:

Well Joey, I'll you how that happened: woodpeckers killed the trees by putting all kinds of holes in 'em!

I had not heard the former usage in the two examples until I moved from Portland, OR to Alabama. Now I hear it everywhere, especially in the churches, but also just in casual conversation. I was just wanting to understand where that usage originated, what the reason for it is, and how widespread it is.

Paragraph Explanation

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 03:14 AM PDT

This is a paragraph in Huxley's novel talking about a painting by Piero Della Francesca: For all their silken softness, the folds of every garment would have the inevitability and definitiveness of syllogisms carved in porphyry and throughout the whole we should feel the all-pervading presence of Plato's God, forever mathematizing chaos into the order and beauty of art.

Any Thoughts on what he means by: "the folds of every garment would have the inevitability and definitiveness of syllogisms carved in porphyry" ?!

For a long time (future)-Usage

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 02:06 AM PDT

I am looking to tell my group of long-time friends, that the meet up they had last week (which I missed) would hopefully not be the last one for at least the next several months.

Would it be fine to say, "Hope this was not the last one for a long time"? (in the sense, I hope it does not take them too long before they come up with another meet-up plan)

Thank you for all your inputs, in advance!

How to ensure clarity in long sentences

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 02:09 AM PDT

I wasn't sure how to phrase the title more precisely so I welcome suggestions or edits.

Companies spend 65% of their profits on buying back their shares because CEOs are incentevised to jack up the share price of their stocks through hefty bonuses.

Here's my question though: Often when I'm writing a sentence like the above I end up in this awkward position where I've got two subjects (excuse my probable abuse of terminology here):

  1. CEOs are being incentevised.
  2. Share prices are going up

and my explanation/justification is:

  1. Hefty bonuses.

From the context it's almost clear that hefty bonuses are are a justification for 1. and not an explanation of 2.

But how do I make this very clear without verbiage. After I've written the first two subjects I feel like I've laid a rhetorical trap for myself. What are my escape routes?

PS. I wasn't sure about how to best phrase the title or which tags to choose so please feel free to suggest or edit.

Word for something that is not actually hard to do, but doing it goes against your instincts?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 03:06 AM PDT

Example actions: working out, taking an ice bath, cleaning your house, admitting when you are wrong.

These things are not difficult to actually do, but are often described as hard, when in reality they are things that go against your instincts, so your brain tries to convince you to not do them due to instincts like conservation of energy, ego protection, etc.

The best word I have for this is just "a thing that requires mental discipline". I am looking for something like non-instinctive, but with an additional clause of not actually being difficult to do. Or when the only barrier to doing a simple task is your own instincts. Does this word exist?

Example usage: "I need to go work out, but I am reluctant to do so because it is really ____."

Thank you!

About "First come, first served."

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 02:53 AM PDT

I know "served" is a past participle, but what about "come?" Is it a verb, a bare infinitive, or a past participle?

Is there a term for horses with white inside the legs?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 06:41 AM PDT

More specifically than the question title: Is there any traditional word in English for the color pattern of a black horse with white on the inside of the legs?  I mean just the inside, so it is not coronet, socks, or stockings.

I have searched "horse colors," and "horse markings" online and found several horse sites and related Wikipedia articles. They have no such terms.

I am asking because I want a translation of a Classical Chinese term which a dictionary written around 100 CE defined as a black horse with white thighs. And this was traditionally interpreted as meaning inner thighs.

Hot chips - What does the word "hot" mean in this phrase?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 06:59 AM PDT

What does the term hot chips mean?

Does the word hot mean that they are served hot (referring to their temperature), or rather that they are spicy (or sprinkled with chilli)?

The answers are very appreciated.

Edit: I live in a non-English speaking country, saw the term in a book and need to find a term in my local language. The text was on a board which the owner put on their "hot chip stand". I am not sure if the word is used to emphasize the temperature (meaning that they are fresh, just prepared) or a taste variant.

Edit 2: The text is in Australian English, i.e. the author refers to French fries (or pommes frites). Frankly, I've never seen them with chilly, in our country, they are sold with mustard, ketchup or mayonnaise. On the other hand, they are always sold hot and in my opinion there is no need to emphasize this fact. And this is the reason of my confusion.

Is there a single word in English that is the opposite of "can't bear to" do something?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 07:01 AM PDT

As the title suggests.

In the movie Willy Wonka and the Chocolate Factory, a classic example of "could NOT bear to" would be when Charlie brings home some chocolate to his family and no one in the house at it, letting him eat it instead.

To address some of the comments: When I say "could not bear" I mean, could not bear the idea of losing something. The key idea is loss or pity/sympathy: Examples:

"He couldn't bear to let his little sister go hungry so he gave the last piece of bread to her."
This particular sentence in Chinese would be written, 'the brother [couldn't bear] to eat the last piece of bread (ie could not bear the thought of using up a precious resource) lest his sister go hungry.'

"She couldn't bear to let the child go hungry."

"She couldn't bear losing him."

"She couldn't bear to sell the house as it was her grandparent's house."

"The migrant worker was the family's sole breadwinner so he didn't [bear to] buy expensive groceries and survived on 99 cent instant noodles."

There is such a word in Chinese, and it is "舍得" which is a a positive/affirmation word (that is more emotional based rather than financial) that means "bear to" part with something, lose something. It can be used as a negation "can NOT bear to/not willing to part with/lose something" as well as an affirmation, voluntarily "willing to" lose something (however this has a somewhat bad connotation. It usually insinuates that the person is reckless, or is willing or forced to lose something they shouldn't lose/do).

I have not found a suitable equivalent in English, which seems like it only has the negation version, "could NOT bear to". I'd like a word or phrase that removes the "not".

Some examples of usage would be:

  1. The poor migrant worker could only [insert word. NOT 'afford'] to eat 99 cent noodles because he was the sole bread winner of the family and there were hospital bills waiting to be paid.

  2. "How could you [insert word] to do that to your own child?"

'Bear' does not sound right in these cases, especially since there is no past tense.

In Chinese it would be:

  1. 穷困的移民工人只 舍得 买99分的方便面，应为他全家靠他一个人的收入,而且还有医疗费需要付款。
  2. "你怎么舍得 对你自己的孩子做那种事？"

Was there a /t͡ʃ/ to /k/ sound change from Old English?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 07:32 AM PDT

I stumbled upon a strange thing while looking up the etymology of words ending in "le". I looked up "kettle" and saw that it was pronounced with /t͡ʃ/ in Old English and also in Middle English.

An entry from Wikitionary:

From Middle English ketel, also chetel, from Old Norse ketill and Old English ċietel

The pronunciation of Old English ċietel is /ˈt͡ʃi͜y.tel/ where /t͡ʃ/ can be seen.
In Middle English, wikitionary gives three pronunciations: /ˈkɛtəl/, /ˈtʃɛtəl/, /ˈtʃitəl/. One of the pronunciations has /k/, the other two have /tʃ/.

I searched many other words starting with "k" in Modern English, that are from Old English but none of them show the same change. Also, I can't find anything on Google.

Can someone explain why it happened? Was it a one-time change or it applied to other words too?

I am confused which articles will be used in the questions mentioned below

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 04:36 AM PDT

  • I have done __ MBA in marketing from __ IIM.

  • I have done __ MBA in marketing from __ Indian Institute of Management.

Options....

  • An
  • A
  • The
  • No article

Present action in past tense

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 08:04 AM PDT

Sir, I am really confused with this sentence "Thank you for watching my youtube channel" please advise whether this action verb " watching" act as a gerund (it is happening now) or act as a past action. Please advise.

Is there a term for "likes" and "dislikes" on a social network?

Posted: 21 Mar 2021 05:11 AM PDT

What is the term to use for "likes" and "dislikes" on social networks? Are they marks or grades or rates or anything else?

My purpose is that I'm programming a system where I have a Post domain object. It can be liked or disliked (as in every social network). Then how should the enumeration type representing these two values be named?
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